So what are you suggesting is in question then? The licences sold for games will differ from game to game; if one of then were legally unsound, that wouldn’t automatically make all of them legally unsound, and obviously that’s local to the legal system in which that finding was made. That selling licences to play games is categorically unlawful? I think that’s not a particularly plausible outcome, and is unlikely to propagate beyond the given jurisdiction the finding happens in if such a ruling were to happen.
the court system
There’s no “the court system”. There are court systems. You’ve only linked to US case law, which, for instance, doesn’t apply to me. This does just seem to be a legal fetish (in the anthropological sense, not the sexual sense). A court ruling something or other doesn’t even have worldwide legal implications, let alone worldwide epistemological implications.
As for what counts as piracy (a separate matter to the rabbit hole we’ve gone down), something being a legal term does not mean that the definition of the word matches 1:1 with its legal description. I’m sure we can both think of examples of murder which is not criminalised as murder by a given government, for example. Words are defined by their use, and people use piracy to refer to a method of obtainment.
So what are you suggesting is in question then? The licences sold for games will differ from game to game; if one of then were legally unsound, that wouldn’t automatically make all of them legally unsound, and obviously that’s local to the legal system in which that finding was made. That selling licences to play games is categorically unlawful? I think that’s not a particularly plausible outcome, and is unlikely to propagate beyond the given jurisdiction the finding happens in if such a ruling were to happen.
There’s no “the court system”. There are court systems. You’ve only linked to US case law, which, for instance, doesn’t apply to me. This does just seem to be a legal fetish (in the anthropological sense, not the sexual sense). A court ruling something or other doesn’t even have worldwide legal implications, let alone worldwide epistemological implications.
As for what counts as piracy (a separate matter to the rabbit hole we’ve gone down), something being a legal term does not mean that the definition of the word matches 1:1 with its legal description. I’m sure we can both think of examples of murder which is not criminalised as murder by a given government, for example. Words are defined by their use, and people use piracy to refer to a method of obtainment.